The Basis for Moral Experience: A Follow Up to My Previous Article Possibility of a Metaphysics of Morality

A Follow Up to a Previous Article of Mine, Possibility of a Metaphysics of Morality

By Brian Rice, published Oct 31, 2007
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From my previous piece on the Probability of a Metaphysics of Morality, I posited the limits in respect to human cognition of universal morality and thus the very basis for moral rationalism. This move from moral rationalism to moral skepticism lends itself important consequences for our further inquiry into morality. What I aim to do now is construct a definition of what serves as the basis for morality, if not our faculty of reason.

The basis for any moral experience, judgment, or claim may have in its origins our own experience of what it means to be moral. In other words, what we hold to be moral is imparted upon us by our experiences with the world we may know. The limits of knowledge extend to the empirical world as given to us by our sense impressions. In order to step aside messy and unfounded assumptions of metaphysics, it is necessary we move towards a direction that we base our morality in something concrete, something relevant in order for it to make any sense at all.

By experience I mean all our interpretations of the given physical world in which we can thoroughly cognize and know. The basis for our moral assumptions, moral principles, and morality in general are in accordance not with any universal truth, but rather subjective truths given to us from our surroundings (that make our particular experiences possible). It is only logically necessary that empiricism could never possibly serve as the grounding for a universal truth, since all of our experiences are hence subjective. The question must be asked then, how does this happen? How does experience shape morality, if my position is at all valid?

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That is precisely the conclusion that I've been arriving at. I'm trying my best to lay as structured a groundwork as possible, hence all these segments. Each one is in essence a premise building up to our shared conclusion. And Kant assumed too much, his problem was his metaphysics. That is why even contemporary Kantian moral philosophers dropped his foundationalism. I should write on this as well. Thanks for the comments.

Posted on 11/02/2007 at 7:11:00 AM

 
I think I've come to the conclusion that in reality there is such thing as morality. When we accuse someone of having no morals what we are really saying is that he doesn't behave or act in the way we would. I wrote about this in my article on prescriptivism--and thanks for the kind comment--and although I hadn't embraced it personally before, the more I've thought about it the likelier an answer it seems, though I have a feeling Kant would tear it to pieces.

Posted on 11/02/2007 at 4:11:00 AM

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